Quiz 13: Respiratory System Disorders

Pathophysiology for the Health Professions

Nursing
103
Questions
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True/False
103
Choices
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Essay
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Questions

Q1
Free

What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax?

Multiple Choice
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A) Air is forced out of the lungs.
B) Lung volume increases.
C) Intrapulmonic pressure decreases.
D) Intrapleural pressure decreases.
Answer:
A) Air is forced out of the lungs.
Q2
Free

The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the: 1. upper and lower respiratory tracts. 2. nasal cavities and the sinuses. 3. nasopharynx and oropharynx. 4. middle ear cavity and auditory tube.

Multiple Choice
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A) 1 only
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer:
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3
Free

Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?

Multiple Choice
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A) Quiet inspiration
B) Forced inspiration
C) Quiet expiration
D) Forced expiration
Answer:
C) Quiet expiration
Q4

The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:

Multiple Choice
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A) expiratory reserve volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) total lung capacity.
D) vital capacity.
Answer:

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Q5

Which of the following applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?

Multiple Choice
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A) PCO2 is low.
B) PO2 is low.
C) Hydrostatic pressure is very high.
D) It is flowing into the left atrium.
Answer:

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Q6

Which of the following causes bronchodilation?

Multiple Choice
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A) Epinephrine
B) Histamine
C) Parasympathetic nervous system
D) Drugs that block 2-adrenergic receptors
Answer:

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Q7

The central chemoreceptors in the medulla are normally most sensitive to:

Multiple Choice
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A) low oxygen level.
B) low concentration of hydrogen ions.
C) elevated oxygen level.
D) elevated carbon dioxide level.
Answer:

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Q8

Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because:

Multiple Choice
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A) PO2 is higher in the blood.
B) PO2 is lower in the blood.
C) CO2 is diffusing out of the blood.
D) more CO2 is diffusing out of cells into the blood.
Answer:

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Q9

Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood:

Multiple Choice
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A) as dissolved gas.
B) attached to the iron molecule in hemoglobin.
C) as bicarbonate ion.
D) as carbonic acid.
Answer:

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Q10

What would hypercapnia cause?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased serum pH
B) Decreased respirations
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Decreased carbonic acid in the blood
Answer:

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Q11

Which of the following would result from hyperventilation?

Multiple Choice
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A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Metabolic acidosis
Answer:

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Q12

Which of the following values is always decreased with respiratory alkalosis (compensated or decompensated)?

Multiple Choice
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A) Serum bicarbonate
B) PaCO2
C) Serum pH
D) Urine pH
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Q13

What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) The kidneys eliminating more bicarbonate ions
B) The kidneys producing more bicarbonate ions
C) The kidneys reabsorbing more hydrogen ions
D) An increase in respiratory rate
Answer:

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Q14

What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases? serum bicarbonate 36.5 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28), PCO2 75 mm Hg (normal range: 35-45), serum pH 7.0

Multiple Choice
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A) Compensated metabolic acidosis
B) Decompensated metabolic acidosis
C) Compensated respiratory acidosis
D) Decompensated respiratory acidosis
Answer:

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Q15

What does carbaminohemoglobin refer to?

Multiple Choice
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A) Replacement of oxygen by carbon monoxide on hemoglobin molecules
B) Full saturation of all heme molecules by oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide attached to an amino group on the hemoglobin molecule
D) Oxygen combined with iron in the hemoglobin molecule
Answer:

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Q16

Approximately what percentage of bound oxygen is released to the cells for metabolism during an erythrocytes journey through the circulatory system?

Multiple Choice
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A) 80%
B) 25%
C) 10%
D) 50%
Answer:

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Q17

The production of yellowish-green, cloudy, thick sputum is often an indication of:

Multiple Choice
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A) bacterial infection.
B) cancer tumor.
C) damage of lung tissue due to smoking.
D) emphysema.
Answer:

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Q18

What does the term hemoptysis refer to?

Multiple Choice
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A) Thick, dark red sputum associated with pneumococcal infection
B) Reddish-brown granular blood found in vomitus
C) Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
D) Bloody exudate in the pleural cavity
Answer:

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Q19

Orthopnea is:

Multiple Choice
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A) very deep, rapid respirations.
B) difficulty breathing when lying down.
C) waking up suddenly, coughing, and struggling for breath.
D) noisy breathing with stridor or rhonchi.
Answer:

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Q20

Light bubbly or crackling breathing sounds associated with serous secretions are called:

Multiple Choice
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A) rhonchi.
B) stridor.
C) rales.
D) wheezing.
Answer:

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Q21

Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:

Multiple Choice
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A) Viral infection in infant under 12 months
B) Viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years
C) Bacterial infection in infant under 6 months
D) Bacterial infection in child, 3 to 7 years
Answer:

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Q22

Signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis usually include:

Multiple Choice
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A) serous nasal discharge and chronic cough.
B) copious frothy sputum and dyspnea.
C) severe localized pain in the facial bone and tenderness in the face.
D) fetid breath and sore throat.
Answer:

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Q23

What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Purulent nasal discharge and periorbital pain
B) Serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
C) Copious purulent sputum, particularly in the morning
D) Harsh barking cough and wheezing
Answer:

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Q24

Why does the influenza virus cause recurrent infection in individuals?

Multiple Choice
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A) Elderly patients are predisposed to secondary infections.
B) The virus is transmitted by numerous routes.
C) The virus is very difficult to destroy.
D) Viral mutation reduces immunity from prior infections.
Answer:

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Q25

What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Hyperinflation of the chest and stridor
B) Hoarse voice and barking cough
C) Sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva
D) Sneezing, mild cough, and fever
Answer:

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Q26

What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?

Multiple Choice
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A) Rhinovirus
B) Influenza virus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Pneumococcus
Answer:

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Q27

Which of the following describes lobar pneumonia?

Multiple Choice
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A) Sudden onset of fever and chills, with rales and rusty sputum
B) Insidious onset, diffuse interstitial infection
C) Viral infection causing nonproductive cough and pleuritic pain
D) Opportunistic bacteria causing low-grade fever with cough and thick greenish sputum
Answer:

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Q28

How does severe hypoxia develop with pneumonia?

Multiple Choice
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A) Acidosis depresses respirations.
B) Oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion.
C) Inflammatory exudate absorbs oxygen from the alveolar air.
D) Infection reduces effective compensation by the heart.
Answer:

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Q29

Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:

Multiple Choice
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A) secondary hemorrhage in the lungs.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the infecting agent.
C) prolonged stasis of mucous secretions in the airways.
D) persistent coughing has damaged the mucosa in the bronchi.
Answer:

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Q30

What is the cause of Legionnaires disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) Mycoplasma
B) A fungus
C) A gram-negative bacterium
D) Pneumococcus
Answer:

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Q31

Select the statement related to tuberculosis:

Multiple Choice
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A) The microbe is present in the sputum of all patients with a positive TB skin test.
B) The infection is transmitted primarily by blood from an infected person.
C) TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many disinfectants.
D) The microbe is quickly destroyed by the immune response.
Answer:

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Q32

How is primary tuberculosis identified?

Multiple Choice
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A) Cavitation in the lungs and spread of the microbe to other organs
B) Persistent productive cough, low-grade fever, and fatigue
C) Caseation necrosis and formation of a tubercle in the lungs
D) Multiple granulomas in the lungs and rapid spread of the microbe
Answer:

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Q33

When does active (secondary) infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis with tissue destruction occur?

Multiple Choice
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A) When host resistance is decreased
B) When a hypersensitivity reaction is initiated
C) When the BCG vaccine is not administered immediately following exposure to the microbe
D) When Ghon complexes form in the lungs
Answer:

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Q34

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to M. tuberculosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Microbes can survive for a long time inside tubercles.
B) The bacilli can survive some adverse conditions such as drying and heat.
C) Infection is limited to the lungs.
D) The bacilli can be destroyed by antibacterial drugs.
Answer:

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Q35

Which of the following confirms the presence of active (reinfection) tuberculosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) A positive skin test for TB
B) A calcified tubercle shown on a chest X-ray
C) Identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample
D) A history of exposure to individuals being treated for TB
Answer:

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Q36

Areas in the United States that show higher rates than the national rate of TB are areas that have a high incidence of:

Multiple Choice
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A) HIV and homelessness.
B) obesity and tobacco use.
C) elderly persons and radon.
D) steroid use and alcoholism.
Answer:

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Q37

Histoplasmosis is caused by a:

Multiple Choice
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A) fungus.
B) virus.
C) bacillus.
D) protozoa.
Answer:

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Q38

Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a/an:

Multiple Choice
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A) X-linked recessive gene.
B) autosomal recessive gene.
C) autosomal dominant gene.
D) chromosomal defect.
Answer:

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Q39

The basic pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is centered on a/an:

Multiple Choice
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A) defect of the exocrine glands.
B) impaired function of the endocrine glands.
C) chronic inflammatory condition of the lungs.
D) abnormal immune response in the lungs and other organs.
Answer:

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Q40

Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of:

Multiple Choice
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A) deficit of gastric enzymes for protein digestion.
B) mucus plugs obstructing the flow of pancreatic enzymes.
C) lack of available treatment for steatorrhea.
D) abnormal salivary secretions.
Answer:

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Q41

Persistent thick mucus in the bronchioles of a child with cystic fibrosis may cause: 1. air trapping. 2. atelectasis. 3. repeated infections. 4. irreversible damage to lung tissue.

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer:

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Q42

What is a common indicator of cystic fibrosis in the newborn?

Multiple Choice
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A) Infant respiratory distress syndrome
B) Failure to excrete meconium
C) Taste of ammonia on the skin
D) Lack of bile secretions
Answer:

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Q43

What is an early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) Air trapping and overinflation of the lung
B) Weight loss
C) Bone pain
D) Chronic cough
Answer:

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Q44

Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:

Multiple Choice
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A) can cause metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium.
B) promotes malignant changes in all types of benign tumors in the lungs.
C) causes paraneoplastic syndrome.
D) increases exposure to carbon monoxide in the lungs.
Answer:

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Q45

Why does hypercalcemia occur with bronchogenic carcinoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) Invasion of the parathyroid gland by the tumor
B) Secretion of parathyroid or parathyroid like hormones by the tumor
C) Destruction of the ribs
D) Failure of the kidney to excrete calcium ions
Answer:

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Q46

What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material?

Multiple Choice
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A) Hoarse cough
B) Rapid loss of consciousness
C) Dyspnea
D) Inflammation of the mucosa
Answer:

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Q47

Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?

Multiple Choice
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A) Reduced pressure of the abdominal organs on the diaphragm
B) Depression of the vomiting center by anesthetics and analgesics
C) Vomiting caused by drugs or anesthesia
D) Lack of food intake for the previous 24 hours
Answer:

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Q48

What is the pathophysiology of an acute attack of extrinsic asthma?

Multiple Choice
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A) Gradual degeneration and fibrosis
B) Continuous severe attacks unresponsive to medication
C) A hypersensitivity reaction involving release of chemical mediators
D) Hyperresponsive mucosa
Answer:

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Q49

During an acute asthma attack, how does respiratory obstruction occur? 1. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle 2. Edema of the mucosa 3. Increased secretion of thick, tenacious mucus 4. Contraction of elastic fibers

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Answer:

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Q50

What cause the expanded anteroposterior (A-P) thoracic diameter (barrel chest) in patients with emphysema?

Multiple Choice
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A) Air trapping and hyperinflation
B) Persistent coughing to remove mucus
C) Recurrent damage to lung tissues
D) Dilated bronchi and increased mucous secretions
Answer:

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Q51

Which of the following is typical of progressive emphysema?

Multiple Choice
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A) Vital capacity increases.
B) Residual lung volume increases.
C) Forced expiratory volume increases.
D) Tidal volume increases.
Answer:

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Q52

Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is a typical change in:

Multiple Choice
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A) chronic bronchitis.
B) acute asthma.
C) emphysema.
D) asbestosis.
Answer:

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Q53

A group of common chronic respiratory disorders characterized by tissue degeneration and respiratory obstruction is called:

Multiple Choice
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A) mesothelioma.
B) COPD.
C) CF.
D) MD.
Answer:

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Q54

Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?

Multiple Choice
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A) The surface area available for gas exchange is greatly reduced.
B) A genetic defect may lead to breakdown of elastic fibers.
C) The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.
D) Expiration is impaired.
Answer:

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Q55

What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the larger airways
B) A genetic defect causing excessive production of mucus
C) Hypersensitivity to parasympathetic stimulation in the bronchi
D) Deficit of enzymes, preventing tissue degeneration
Answer:

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Q56

Which of the following is typical of chronic bronchitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Decreased activity of the mucous glands
B) Fibrosis of the bronchial wall
C) Overinflation of bronchioles and alveoli
D) Formation of blebs or bullae on the lung surface
Answer:

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Q57

What are typical pathological changes with bronchiectasis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Bronchospasm and increased mucous secretion
B) Adhesions and fibrosis in the pleural membranes
C) Airway obstructions and weak, dilated bronchial walls
D) Fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position
Answer:

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Q58

Which of the following are significant signs of bronchiectasis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Persistent nonproductive cough, dyspnea, and fatigue
B) Persistent purulent nasal discharge, fever, and cough
C) Chronic cough, producing large quantities of purulent sputum
D) Wheezing and stridor
Answer:

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Q59

Why does cor pulmonale develop with chronic pulmonary disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) The right ventricle pumps more blood than the left ventricle.
B) Pulmonary fibrosis and vasoconstriction increase vascular resistance.
C) Demands on the left ventricle are excessive.
D) Blood viscosity is increased, adding to cardiac workload.
Answer:

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Q60

Restrictive lung disorders may be divided into two groups based on:

Multiple Choice
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A) patient history of obesity and exposure to other COPD.
B) smoking history and congenital defects.
C) previous lung disease and cardiovascular disorders.
D) anatomical abnormality and lung disease damage, impairing expansion.
Answer:

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Q61

What is caused by frequent inhalation of irritating particles such as silica?

Multiple Choice
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A) Fibrosis and loss of compliance
B) Frequent bronchospasm
C) Increased number of mucus-producing glands
D) Distorted shape of the thorax
Answer:

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Q62

Pulmonary edema causes severe hypoxia because of:

Multiple Choice
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A) decreased diffusion of carbon dioxide from the alveoli.
B) interference with expansion of the lungs.
C) constant cough and hemoptysis.
D) decreased recoil of lungs and ineffective expiration.
Answer:

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Q63

Which of the following is NOT a cause of pulmonary edema?

Multiple Choice
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A) Left-sided congestive heart failure
B) Excessive blood volume (overload)
C) Inhalation of toxic gases
D) Hyperproteinemia and increasing osmotic pressure of the blood
Answer:

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Q64

Which of the following is a common source of a pulmonary embolus?

Multiple Choice
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A) Mural thrombus from the left ventricle
B) Thrombus attached to atheromas in the aorta or iliac arteries
C) Thrombus forming in the femoral veins
D) A blood clot in the pulmonary vein
Answer:

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Q65

What is a large-sized pulmonary embolus likely to cause?

Multiple Choice
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A) Hypertension and left-sided heart failure
B) Atelectasis and respiratory failure
C) Hypotension and right-sided heart failure
D) Pleural effusion and atelectasis
Answer:

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Q66

Which manifestation(s) of atelectasis is/are associated with airway obstruction?

Multiple Choice
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A) Bradycardia and dyspnea
B) Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side
C) Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
D) Rales and rhonchi
Answer:

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Q67

How does total obstruction of the airway lead to atelectasis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Decreased surfactant production impairs lung expansion.
B) The involved lung is compressed.
C) Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.
D) Air continues to be inspired but is trapped distal to the obstruction.
Answer:

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Q68

How does a large pleural effusion lead to atelectasis?

Multiple Choice
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A) The cohesion between the pleural membranes is disrupted.
B) There is decreased intrapleural pressure.
C) The mediastinal contents compress the affected side.
D) Pleuritic pain causes very shallow breathing.
Answer:

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Q69

When does flail chest usually occur?

Multiple Choice
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A) An open puncture wound involves the pleural membranes.
B) The visceral pleura is torn by a fractured rib.
C) Several ribs are fractured at two sites.
D) Increasing fluid in the pleural cavity causes atelectasis.
Answer:

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Q70

With a flail chest injury, events during inspiration include which of the following?

Multiple Choice
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A) Air is sucked into the lung through the chest wall.
B) The mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side.
C) The floating segment is pushed outward.
D) The trachea deviates toward the affected side.
Answer:

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Q71

How is cardiac output reduced with a flail chest injury?

Multiple Choice
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A) Atelectasis compresses the heart.
B) Venous return is impaired.
C) Intrapleural pressure is decreased.
D) Air pressure continues to increase in the pleural space.
Answer:

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Q72

Which of the following is a manifestation of a simple closed pneumothorax?

Multiple Choice
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A) Decreased respiratory rate
B) Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected lung
C) Asymmetrical chest movements
D) Increased breath sounds on the affected side
Answer:

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Q73

Which of the following is an effect of a large open pneumothorax (sucking wound)?

Multiple Choice
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A) Mediastinal flutter, impairing venous return
B) Increased venous return
C) Progressive atelectasis of both lungs
D) Overexpansion of the unaffected lung
Answer:

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Q74

With a tension pneumothorax, which factors contribute to severe hypoxia?

Multiple Choice
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A) Decreasing compression of the inferior vena cava
B) More air leaving the pleural cavity on expiration than entering with inspiration
C) Shift of the mediastinal contents toward the affected lung
D) Continually increasing pressure on the unaffected lung
Answer:

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Q75

Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of adult respiratory distress syndrome? 1. Damage leading to increased permeability of the alveolar capillary membranes 2. Decreased surface tension in the alveoli 3. Excessive fluid and protein interstitially and in the alveoli 4. Multiple diffuse hemorrhages in the lungs

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Answer:

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Q76

Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:

Multiple Choice
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A) insufficient surfactant production.
B) incomplete expiration shortly after birth.
C) retention of fluid in the lungs after birth.
D) immature neural control of respirations.
Answer:

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Q77

Obstruction in the upper airway is usually indicated by:

Multiple Choice
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A) stridor.
B) rales.
C) wheezing.
D) orthopnea.
Answer:

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Q78

Which of the following does NOT apply to carbon dioxide?

Multiple Choice
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A) It diffuses across membranes much more easily than does oxygen.
B) It is carried in blood as carbaminohemoglobin.
C) It can be converted into bicarbonate ion.
D) It is replaced on hemoglobin by oxygen in the lungs.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q79

Whenever PO2 levels decrease below normal, PCO2 levels:

Multiple Choice
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A) increase.
B) decrease also.
C) may or may not change.
D) increase slightly.
Answer:

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Q80

Laryngotracheobronchitis is typically manifested by:

Multiple Choice
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A) drooling and difficulty swallowing.
B) hoarse voice and barking cough.
C) sore and scratchy throat with fever.
D) wheezing and dyspnea.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q81

Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:

Multiple Choice
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A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Legionella pneumophila.
D) Pneumocystis carinii.
Answer:

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Q82

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:

Multiple Choice
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A) rhinovirus.
B) mycoplasma.
C) influenza virus.
D) coronavirus.
Answer:

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Q83

SARS typically begins as a flulike syndrome followed, after a few days, by:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased exudates in the bronchial tree and pleural cavity.
B) productive cough and lobar consolidation.
C) interstitial lung congestion, dyspnea, and dry cough.
D) hemoptysis and necrosis of mucous membrane.
Answer:

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Q84

In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:

Multiple Choice
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A) excess bile production.
B) high sodium chloride content in saliva and sweat.
C) gastric ulcers.
D) frequent ear and sinus infections.
Answer:

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Q85

Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?

Multiple Choice
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A) Frequent nonproductive cough
B) Fever, dyspnea, generalized aching
C) Production of large volumes of purulent sputum
D) Hemoptysis and weight loss
Answer:

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Q86

Which of the following is likely to cause pneumothorax or hemothorax in a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) The tumor obstructs a major bronchus.
B) Compression of lung tissue by the tumor causes atelectasis.
C) The tumor causes inflammation and erosion of the pleural membranes.
D) Inflammation around the tumor causes exudate in the small bronchi.
Answer:

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Q87

Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) A positive tuberculin skin test
B) Occurrence of hemoptysis
C) Unproductive cough with absence of sputum
D) Small areas of calcification on a chest X-ray
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q88

Which of the following drugs is usually prescribed for prophylaxis in persons in close contact with a patient with active tuberculosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Streptomycin
B) Isoniazid
C) Rifampin
D) None of the above
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q89

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Multiple Choice
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A) TB bacilli are spread by oral droplet.
B) TB bacilli are slow-growing bacteria.
C) Active TB must be treated in hospital for many months.
D) Active TB can be prevented by good host resistance.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q90

Choose the correct reason for severe hypoxia occurring with pulmonary edema:

Multiple Choice
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A) Diffusion of oxygen into the alveoli is impaired.
B) Fluid in the pleural cavity prevents normal lung expansion.
C) Increased concentration of CO2 impairs diffusion of oxygen.
D) Increased blood flow through the lungs prevents diffusion of gases.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q91

Which of the following drugs in an inhaler would likely be carried by individuals to provide immediate control of acute asthma attacks?

Multiple Choice
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A) A glucocorticoid
B) Epinephrine
C) Cromolyn
D) A 2-adrenergic agent
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q92

Development of emphysema in a nonsmoker may be the result of:

Multiple Choice
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A) a genetic factor.
B) obesity.
C) vitamin deficiencies.
D) a developmental defect.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q93

Which factors contribute to postoperative atelectasis? 1. Decreased secretions in the airways 2. Drug-related respiratory depression 3. Abdominal distention and pain 4. Excessive deep-breathing and coughing

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 4
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q94

Primary atypical pneumonia (PAP) is caused by:

Multiple Choice
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A) Klebsiella oxytoca.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q95

All of the following are expected with infant respiratory distress syndrome EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) severe hypoxia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) pulmonary vasoconstriction.
D) fluid and protein in the alveoli.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q96

Which factor usually causes metabolic acidosis to develop in association with hypoxia?

Multiple Choice
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A) Anaerobic metabolism
B) Failure to excrete CO2
C) Liver dysfunction
D) Increased blood volume
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q97

Mediastinal flutter associated with chest injury is likely to:

Multiple Choice
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A) cause pulmonary edema.
B) cause hypocapnia.
C) increase lung expansion.
D) decrease venous return to the heart.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q98

Which of the following individuals is NOT considered to be at high risk for developing active tuberculosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Homeless individuals
B) Individuals with AIDS
C) Persons who experience acute asthma attacks
D) Those living in institutions
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q99

Which of the following distinguishes influenza from infectious rhinitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Influenza is a viral infection.
B) Treatment is symptomatic
C) Influenza has a sudden onset with fever, marked muscle aching, and severe malaise.
D) Complications can occur with influenza.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

The use of a continuous positive airway pump in the treatment of sleep apnea will:

Multiple Choice
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A) reduce bronchospasm.
B) force expansion of pleural membranes.
C) maintain an open airway.
D) awaken the person and increase respirations.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Hemoptysis is a significant sign of:

Multiple Choice
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A) pleural effusion.
B) pulmonary embolus.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) atelectasis.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Which of the following applies to anthrax infection?

Multiple Choice
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A) It is caused by a virus that mutates frequently.
B) When inhaled, it causes flulike symptoms followed by acute respiratory distress.
C) There is a long incubation period, often months, following exposure.
D) It is a common infection in North America.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

The mutated gene for cystic fibrosis is located on the:

Multiple Choice
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A) seventh chromosome.
B) tenth chromosome.
C) fifteenth chromosome.
D) X chromosome.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

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