Quiz 09: Musculoskeletal Disorders

Pathophysiology for the Health Professions

Nursing
46
Questions
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True/False
46
Choices
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Essay
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Questions

Q1
Free

Which of the following cells produce new bone?

Multiple Choice
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A) Osteocytes
B) Osteoblasts
C) Osteoclasts
D) Stem cells from the bone marrow
Answer:
B) Osteoblasts
Q2
Free

What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?

Multiple Choice
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A) Norepinephrine
B) GABA
C) Serotonin
D) Acetylcholine
Answer:
D) Acetylcholine
Q3
Free

What are the two types of bone tissue?

Multiple Choice
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A) Vascular and nonvascular
B) Spongy and calcified
C) Compact and cancellous
D) Dense and pliable
Answer:
C) Compact and cancellous
Q4

Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?

Multiple Choice
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A) The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site.
B) A bone is crushed into many small pieces.
C) The bone appears bent with a partial fracture line.
D) One end of a bone is forced into an adjacent bone.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q5

Which of the following describes a Colles fracture?

Multiple Choice
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A) The distal radius is broken.
B) The distal fibula is broken.
C) A vertebra appears crushed.
D) A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q6

During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:

Multiple Choice
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A) is broken down and absorbed immediately.
B) provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone.
C) is the structure into which granulation tissue grows.
D) produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q7

When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:

Multiple Choice
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A) can bear weight.
B) serves as a splint across the fracture site.
C) is the tissue that lays down new cartilage.
D) is made up of new bone.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q8

The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:

Multiple Choice
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A) excessive bone movement.
B) severe ischemia and tissue necrosis.
C) malunion or nonunion.
D) fat emboli to form.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q9

What is a sign of a dislocation?

Multiple Choice
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A) Crepitus
B) Pain and tenderness
C) Increased range of motion at a joint
D) Deformity at a joint
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q10

All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) weight-bearing activity.
B) a sedentary lifestyle.
C) long-term intake of glucocorticoids.
D) calcium deficit.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q11

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B) It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C) Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D) It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q12

Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) Intermittent, increasing with activity
B) Sharp, increased with joint movement
C) Mild, aching when weight-bearing
D) Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q13

How is Duchennes muscular dystrophy inherited?

Multiple Choice
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A) Autosomal recessive gene
B) X-linked recessive gene
C) Autosomal dominant gene
D) Codominant gene
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q14

Which of the following is true about Duchennes muscular dystrophy?

Multiple Choice
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A) There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
B) It involves only the legs and pelvis.
C) Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler.
D) It cannot be detected in any carriers.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q15

The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called:

Multiple Choice
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A) Synarthroses
B) Amphiarthroses
C) Anarthroses
D) Diarthroses
Answer:

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Q16

Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
B) Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
C) It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
D) There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q17

What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Decreases over time
B) Quite severe in the early stages
C) Aggravated by general muscle aching
D) Increased with weight-bearing and activity
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q18

What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
B) The wider joint space
C) Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
D) Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q19

Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by:

Multiple Choice
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A) causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints.
B) bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream.
C) inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb.
D) the affected individuals exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q20

What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Random single joints, progressing to involve other joints
B) Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
C) Abused or damaged joints first, then joints damaged by compensatory movement
D) Progressive degeneration in selected joints
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q21

What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
B) Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
C) Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
D) Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q22

How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
B) Inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
C) Fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
D) Blood supply to the cartilage is lost
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q23

How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Relatively normal
B) Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement
C) Deformed, pale, and nodular
D) Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q24

Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because:

Multiple Choice
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A) skeletal muscle hypertrophies.
B) fibrosis occurs in the joint.
C) replacement cartilage changes alignment.
D) ligaments and tendons shorten.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q25

Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:

Multiple Choice
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A) nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.
B) headache, leukopenia, and high fever.
C) swelling and dysfunction in many organs.
D) progressive damage to a joint.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q26

What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Leukocytosis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Severe anemia
D) Orthostatic hypotension
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q27

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that:

Multiple Choice
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A) only small joints are affected.
B) rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe.
C) onset is more insidious in JRA.
D) deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q28

Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time
B) Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis
C) Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
D) Presence of many antibodies in the blood
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q29

Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?

Multiple Choice
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A) A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
B) Severe hypercalcemia
C) Mild trauma to the toes
D) Development of a tophus
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q30

Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Costovertebral joints with progression down the spine
B) Cervical and thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis
C) Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine
D) Peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q31

What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
B) Frequent fractures of long bones
C) Impaired heart function
D) Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q32

Which statement applies to menisci?

Multiple Choice
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A) They are found in the hip joints.
B) They are secretory membranes in joints.
C) They prevent excessive movement of joints.
D) They are found in the shoulder joint.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q33

Which factors delay healing of bone fractures? 1. Lack of movement of the bone 2. Prolonged inflammation and ischemia 3. Presence of osteomyelitis 4. Close approximation of bone ends

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q34

What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?

Multiple Choice
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A) Additional ischemia in the broken bone
B) Nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C) Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D) Abscess and infection at a distant site
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q35

A sprain is a tear in a:

Multiple Choice
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A) ligament.
B) tendon.
C) skeletal muscle.
D) meniscus.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q36

Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:

Multiple Choice
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A) nonweight-bearing exercises.
B) dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D.
C) transplants of osteoblasts.
D) avoidance of all hormones.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q37

What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?

Multiple Choice
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A) Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
B) Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
C) Localized areas of constant pain
D) Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q38

Ewings sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:

Multiple Choice
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A) brain.
B) liver.
C) lungs.
D) other bones.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q39

Immovable joints are called:

Multiple Choice
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A) amphiarthroses.
B) synarthroses.
C) diarthroses.
D) synovial joints.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q40

Rickets results from:

Multiple Choice
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A) excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts.
B) a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates.
C) replacement of bone by fibrous tissue.
D) hyperparathyroidism.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q41

Pagets disease often leads to which of the following?

Multiple Choice
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A) A reduction in bone fractures
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Disintegration of joint cartilage
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q42

Bones classified as irregular would include:

Multiple Choice
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A) skull bones.
B) the mandible.
C) wrist bones.
D) the femur.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q43

A dislocation is:

Multiple Choice
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A) the tearing of a tendon in the joint.
B) the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact.
C) the twisting of a joint, causing excessive inflammation of the surrounding tissue.
D) the overstressing of ligaments, causing loss of elasticity.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q44

A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an:

Multiple Choice
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A) electromyogram.
B) arthroscopy.
C) radiograph.
D) electroencephalograph.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q45

The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is referred to as a/an:

Multiple Choice
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A) compression fracture.
B) greenstick fracture.
C) simple fracture.
D) comminuted fracture.
Answer:

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Q46

Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:

Multiple Choice
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A) articular capsules.
B) bursae.
C) synovial sacs.
D) hyaline chambers.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

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