Quiz 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders

Pathophysiology for the Health Professions

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True/False
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Questions

Q1
Free

Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased intraventricular pressure
B) Depolarization at the AV node
C) Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
D) Contraction of the atria
Answer:
A) Increased intraventricular pressure
Q2
Free

When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?

Multiple Choice
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A) Decreased peripheral resistance
B) Increased heart rate
C) Decreased venous return
D) General vasodilation
Answer:
B) Increased heart rate
Q3
Free

Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity?

Multiple Choice
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A) It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart.
B) It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
C) It is lined by the endocardium.
D) It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.
Answer:
B) It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
Q4

Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?

Multiple Choice
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A) Rapid emptying of the right side of the heart
B) Forceful action of the valves in the veins
C) Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
D) Peristalsis in the large veins
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q5

The function of the baroreceptors is to:

Multiple Choice
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A) stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system at the sinoatrial (SA) node as needed.
B) adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance.
C) sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
D) signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.
Answer:

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Q6

The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:

Multiple Choice
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A) preventing an excessively rapid heart rate.
B) limiting the time for a myocardial contraction.
C) allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria.
D) completing ventricular filling.
Answer:

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Q7

Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased heart rate and force of contraction
B) Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles
C) Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys
D) Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
Answer:

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Q8

Which of the following causes increased heart rate?

Multiple Choice
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A) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
B) Increased renin secretion
C) Administration of beta-blocking drugs
D) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
Answer:

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Q9

The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:

Multiple Choice
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A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
Answer:

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Q10

The cardiac reserve is:

Multiple Choice
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A) afterload.
B) the difference between the apical and radial pulses.
C) the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed.
D) the extra blood remaining in the heart after it contracts.
Answer:

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Q11

The term preload refers to:

Multiple Choice
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A) volume of venous return.
B) peripheral resistance.
C) stroke volume.
D) cardiac output.
Answer:

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Q12

The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:

Multiple Choice
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A) common carotid arteries.
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) coronary arteries.
D) subclavian arteries.
Answer:

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Q13

Cardiac output refers to:

Multiple Choice
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A) the amount of blood passing through either of the atria.
B) the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute.
C) the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in a single contraction.
D) the total number of heartbeats in one minute.
Answer:

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Q14

Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:

Multiple Choice
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A) decreased blood pressure.
B) increased parasympathetic stimulation.
C) relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles.
D) increased stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors.
Answer:

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Q15

Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?

Multiple Choice
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A) warfarin (Coumadin)
B) digoxin (Lanoxin)
C) nitroglycerin (Isordil)
D) hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
Answer:

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Q16

Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation? 1. Decreased viscosity of the blood 2. Damaged blood vessel walls 3. Immobility 4. Prosthetic valves

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
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Q17

A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is:

Multiple Choice
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A) acetylsalicylic acid (ASA).
B) streptokinase.
C) acetaminophen.
D) heparin.
Answer:

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Q18

A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:

Multiple Choice
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A) pulmonary embolus.
B) hypertension.
C) angina attacks.
D) myocardial infarction.
Answer:

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Q19

Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:

Multiple Choice
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A) reduces vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance.
B) decreases serum lipid levels.
C) promotes platelet adhesion.
D) increases serum HDL levels.
Answer:

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Q20

The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:

Multiple Choice
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A) development of atheromas in large arteries.
B) intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries.
C) degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries.
D) ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart.
Answer:

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Q21

A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:

Multiple Choice
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A) leading a sedentary lifestyle.
B) being female and older than 40 years of age.
C) excluding saturated fats from the diet.
D) familial hypercholesterolemia.
Answer:

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Q22

An atheroma develops from:

Multiple Choice
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A) a torn arterial wall and blood clots.
B) accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred.
C) thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins.
D) repeated vasospasms.
Answer:

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Q23

Low-density lipoproteins (LDL):

Multiple Choice
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A) promote atheroma development.
B) contain only small amounts of cholesterol.
C) transport cholesterol from cells to the liver for excretion.
D) are associated with low intake of saturated fats.
Answer:

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Q24

Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) eating a large meal.
B) engaging in an angry argument.
C) taking a nap.
D) shoveling snow on a cold, windy day.
Answer:

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Q25

When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?

Multiple Choice
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A) Both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis.
B) Angina often occurs at rest; MI occurs during a stressful time.
C) Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI.
D) Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not.
Answer:

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Q26

The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:

Multiple Choice
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A) cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body.
B) temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery.
C) total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis.
D) irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.
Answer:

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Q27

Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:

Multiple Choice
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A) brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing.
B) persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
C) bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea.
D) flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness.
Answer:

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Q28

The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is:

Multiple Choice
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A) an imbalance in calcium ions.
B) an infection of the heart muscle.
C) atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus.
D) a disruption of the heart conduction system.
Answer:

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Q29

Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:

Multiple Choice
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A) reducing the risk of blood clotting.
B) decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques.
C) reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions.
D) decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias.
Answer:

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Q30

Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?

Multiple Choice
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A) A full description of the pain, including the sequence of development
B) The presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides
C) Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG
D) Leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein
Answer:

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Q31

The size of the necrotic area resulting from myocardial infarction may be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) previously established collateral circulation.
B) immediate administration of thrombolytic drugs.
C) maintaining maximum oxygen supply to the myocardium.
D) removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development.
Answer:

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Q32

The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is:

Multiple Choice
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A) cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation.
B) ruptured ventricle or aorta.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) cerebrovascular accident.
Answer:

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Q33

Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?

Multiple Choice
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A) Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.
B) Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
C) The ventricles contract before the atria.
D) Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.
Answer:

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Q34

The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following?

Multiple Choice
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A) Condition where cardiac output is less than the demand
B) A decreased circulating blood volume
C) Missing a ventricular contraction
D) The cessation of all cardiac function
Answer:

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Q35

Which change results from total heart block?

Multiple Choice
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A) A prolonged PR interval
B) Periodic omission of a ventricular contraction
C) A wide QRS wave
D) Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
Answer:

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Q36

The term premature ventricular contraction refers to the condition where:

Multiple Choice
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A) atrial muscle cells are stimulating additional cardiac contractions.
B) the ventricles contract spontaneously following a period without a stimulus.
C) additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle.
D) increased heart rate causes palpitations.
Answer:

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Q37

Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?

Multiple Choice
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A) Incompetent tricuspid heart valve
B) Chronic pulmonary disease
C) Infarction in the right atrium
D) Uncontrolled essential hypertension
Answer:

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Q38

The definition of congestive heart failure is:

Multiple Choice
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A) cessation of all cardiac activity.
B) inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body.
C) insufficient circulating blood in the body.
D) the demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply.
Answer:

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Q39

Significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include:

Multiple Choice
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A) severe chest pain and tachycardia.
B) edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly.
C) frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum.
D) orthopnea, fatigue, increased blood pressure.
Answer:

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Q40

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is marked by:

Multiple Choice
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A) hemoptysis and rales.
B) distended neck veins and flushed face.
C) bradycardia and weak pulse.
D) cardiomegaly.
Answer:

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Q41

Compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure include:

Multiple Choice
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A) slow cardiac contractions.
B) increased renin and aldosterone secretions.
C) decreased erythropoietin secretion.
D) fatigue and cold intolerance.
Answer:

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Q42

In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?

Multiple Choice
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A) Veins of the legs and feet
B) Jugular veins
C) Pulmonary capillaries
D) Blood vessels of the liver and spleen
Answer:

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Q43

Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?

Multiple Choice
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A) Furosemide
B) Digoxin
C) Epinephrine
D) Nifedipine
Answer:

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Q44

In an infant, the initial indication of congestive heart failure is often:

Multiple Choice
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A) distended neck veins.
B) feeding problems.
C) low-grade fever and lethargy.
D) frequent vomiting.
Answer:

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Q45

Effects that may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug include:

Multiple Choice
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A) increasing systemic vasoconstriction.
B) decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) blockage of an angiotensin receptor site.
D) increased release of renin.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q46

A sign of aortic stenosis is:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased cardiac output.
B) congestion in the liver, spleen, and legs.
C) flushed face and headache.
D) a heart murmur.
Answer:

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Q47

An incompetent mitral valve would cause:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased blood to remain in the right atrium.
B) hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
C) decreased output from the left ventricle.
D) decreased pressure in the left atrium.
Answer:

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Q48

Which of the following describes the blood flow occurring with a ventricular septal defect?

Multiple Choice
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A) From the left ventricle to the right ventricle
B) From the right ventricle to the left ventricle
C) Increased cardiac output from the left ventricle
D) Mixed oxygenated and unoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation
Answer:

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Q49

Unoxygenated blood enters the systemic circulation in children with tetralogy of Fallot because:

Multiple Choice
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A) the aorta and pulmonary artery have exchanged positions.
B) pulmonary stenosis changes the ventricular pressures.
C) the left ventricular wall has hypertrophied.
D) the septal defect allows exchange of blood between the atria.
Answer:

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Q50

Cyanosis occurs in children with tetralogy of Fallot because:

Multiple Choice
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A) more carbon dioxide is present in the circulating blood.
B) a large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated.
C) the pulmonary circulation is overloaded and congested.
D) the circulation is sluggish (slow) throughout the system.
Answer:

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Q51

The initial effect on the heart in cases of rheumatic fever is:

Multiple Choice
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A) infection in the heart by hemolytic streptococci.
B) highly virulent microbes causing vegetations on the heart valves.
C) septic emboli obstructing coronary arteries.
D) acute inflammation in all layers of the heart due to abnormal immune response.
Answer:

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Q52

Common signs of rheumatic fever include all of the following EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) arthritis, causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet.
B) erythematous skin rash and subcutaneous nodules.
C) epistaxis, tachycardia, and fever.
D) elevated ASO titer and leukocytosis.
Answer:

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Q53

Rheumatic heart disease usually manifests in later years as:

Multiple Choice
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A) swollen heart valves and fever.
B) cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs.
C) thrombus formation and septic emboli.
D) petechial hemorrhages of the skin and mucosa.
Answer:

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Q54

Septic emboli, a common complication of infective endocarditis, are a result of the fact that:

Multiple Choice
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A) vegetations are loosely attached and fragile.
B) the valves are no longer competent.
C) cardiac output is reduced.
D) heart contractions are irregular.
Answer:

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Q55

Which of the following applies to subacute infective endocarditis?

Multiple Choice
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A) A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves.
B) Virulent microbes invade normal heart valves.
C) No permanent damage occurs to the valves.
D) Prophylactic medication does not prevent infection.
Answer:

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Q56

Pericarditis causes a reduction in cardiac output as a result of which of the following?

Multiple Choice
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A) Delays in the conduction system, interfering with cardiac rhythm
B) Weak myocardial contractions due to friction rub
C) Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity, which decreases ventricular filling
D) Incompetent valves, which allow regurgitation of blood
Answer:

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Q57

Pericarditis may be caused by: 1. infection. 2. abnormal immune responses. 3. injury. 4. malignant neoplasm.

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer:

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Q58

A source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain could be the:

Multiple Choice
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A) femoral vein.
B) pulmonary vein.
C) carotid artery.
D) coronary artery.
Answer:

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Q59

The basic pathophysiological change associated with essential hypertension is:

Multiple Choice
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A) development of lipid plaques in large arteries.
B) recurrent inflammation and fibrosis in peripheral arteries.
C) degeneration and loss of elasticity in arteries.
D) increased systemic vasoconstriction.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q60

Uncontrolled hypertension is most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function in the:

Multiple Choice
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A) kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye.
B) peripheral arteries in the legs.
C) aorta and coronary arteries.
D) liver, spleen, and stomach.
Answer:

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Q61

When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension likely to be considered in young or middle-aged individuals?

Multiple Choice
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A) Blood pressure remains consistently above 140/90
B) Blood pressure fluctuates between 130/85 and 180/105
C) Blood pressure increases rapidly and is unresponsive to medication
D) Chronic kidney disease leads to consistently elevated blood pressure
Answer:

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Q62

Atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries is likely to cause which of the following? 1. Gangrenous ulcers in the legs 2. Strong rapid pulses in the legs 3. Intermittent claudication 4. Red, swollen legs

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Answer:

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Q63

The term intermittent claudication refers to:

Multiple Choice
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A) sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves.
B) chest pain related to ischemia.
C) ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise.
D) dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers.
Answer:

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Q64

What is the primary reason for amputation of gangrenous toes or feet in patients with peripheral vascular disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) It promotes more rapid healing of ulcerated areas.
B) It improves circulation to other areas.
C) It prevents spread of infection and reduces pain.
D) It reduces swelling in the peripheral areas.
Answer:

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Q65

An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal:

Multiple Choice
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A) activity in the conduction system.
B) movement of the heart valves.
C) change in central venous pressure.
D) blood flow in coronary arteries.
Answer:

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Q66

A friction rub is associated with:

Multiple Choice
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A) infectious endocarditis.
B) arrhythmias.
C) pericarditis.
D) an incompetent aortic valve.
Answer:

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Q67

A dissecting aortic aneurysm develops as:

Multiple Choice
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A) a dilation or bulge that develops at one point on the aortic wall.
B) a thrombus that accumulates at a point in the aortic wall.
C) a section of the aorta that weakens and dilates in all directions.
D) a tear in the intimal lining, which allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.
Answer:

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Q68

The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is:

Multiple Choice
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A) early diagnosis and repair.
B) thrombus formation and pulmonary embolus.
C) rupture and hemorrhage.
D) pressure on adjacent organs or structures.
Answer:

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Q69

Which factor predisposes to varicose veins during pregnancy?

Multiple Choice
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A) Compressed pelvic veins
B) Stenotic valves in leg veins
C) Thrombus formation
D) Insufficient muscle support for veins
Answer:

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Q70

Phlebothrombosis is more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than is thrombophlebitis because:

Multiple Choice
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A) platelets attach to the inflamed wall.
B) thrombus forms in a vein and is less firmly attached.
C) leg cramps require massage.
D) systemic signs of inflammation require treatment.
Answer:

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Q71

Shock is defined as:

Multiple Choice
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A) failure of the heart to supply sufficient blood to body cells.
B) general hypoxia, causing damage to various organs.
C) decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion.
D) loss of blood, causing severe hypoxia.
Answer:

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Q72

Shock follows a myocardial infarction when:

Multiple Choice
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A) the stress response causes general vasodilation.
B) fluid is lost into ischemic tissues.
C) heart valves are damaged.
D) a large portion of the myocardium is damaged.
Answer:

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Q73

What are the early signs of circulatory shock? 1. Pale moist skin 2. Loss of consciousness 3. Anxiety and restlessness 4. Rapid strong pulse

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 3, 4
Answer:

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Q74

A compensation for shock would include:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased heart rate and oliguria.
B) lethargy and decreased responsiveness.
C) warm, dry, flushed skin.
D) weak, thready pulse.
Answer:

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Q75

Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?

Multiple Choice
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A) Generalized vasoconstriction reduces venous return.
B) Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow.
C) Heart rate and contractility are reduced.
D) Metabolic rate is greatly increased.
Answer:

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Q76

Neurogenic (vasogenic) shock results from systemic vasodilation due to:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased peripheral resistance and less blood in the microcirculation.
B) increased permeability of all the blood vessels, leading to hypovolemia.
C) slower, less forceful cardiac contractions.
D) increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return.
Answer:

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Q77

A prolonged period of shock is likely to cause:

Multiple Choice
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A) damage to, and increased permeability of, pulmonary capillaries.
B) increased permeability of the glomerular capillaries of the kidneys.
C) increased pH of blood and body fluids.
D) increased systemic vasoconstriction.
Answer:

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Q78

What would indicate decompensated acidosis related to shock?

Multiple Choice
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A) Serum bicarbonate level below normal
B) PCO2 above normal
C) Serum pH below normal range
D) Urine pH of 4.5
Answer:

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Q79

With shock, anaerobic cell metabolism and decreased renal blood flow cause:

Multiple Choice
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A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) decreased serum potassium.
D) increased serum bicarbonate.
Answer:

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Q80

Shock develops in patients with severe burns as a result of:

Multiple Choice
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A) extensive hemorrhage.
B) pain and loss of plasma.
C) direct damage to the heart.
D) extensive hemolysis of erythrocytes.
Answer:

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Q81

The classic early manifestation(s) of left-sided congestive heart failure is/are ____, whereas the early indicator(s) of right-sided failure is/are _______.

Multiple Choice
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A) palpitations and periodic chest pain; shortness of breath on exertion
B) swelling of the ankles and abdomen; chest pain
C) shortness of breath on exertion or lying down; swelling of the ankles
D) coughing up frothy sputum; hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
Answer:

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Q82

A common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications is:

Multiple Choice
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A) orthostatic hypotension.
B) bradycardia.
C) altered blood coagulation.
D) peripheral edema.
Answer:

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Q83

The cause of essential hypertension is considered to be:

Multiple Choice
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A) chronic renal disease.
B) excessive intake of saturated fats and salt.
C) sedentary lifestyle.
D) idiopathic.
Answer:

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Q84

A cardiac pacemaker would most likely be inserted in cases of:

Multiple Choice
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A) angina pectoris.
B) heart block.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) ventricular fibrillation.
Answer:

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Q85

Which of the following is considered to be the most dangerous arrhythmia?

Multiple Choice
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A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Ventricular fibrillation
D) Second-degree heart block
Answer:

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Q86

Which of the following is NOT true of the drug nitroglycerin?

Multiple Choice
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A) It decreases myocardial workload by causing systemic vasodilation.
B) It may be administered sublingually, transdermally, or by oral spray.
C) Dizziness or syncope may follow a sublingual dose.
D) It strengthens the myocardial contraction.
Answer:

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Q87

Confirmation of the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction would include: 1. specific changes in the ECG. 2. marked leukocytosis and increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). 3. elevation of cardiac isoenzymes in serum. 4. a pattern of pain.

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Answer:

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Q88

Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms is true?

Multiple Choice
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A) Aneurysms are always caused by congenital malformations.
B) The greatest danger with aneurysms is thrombus formation.
C) Manifestations of aneurysms result from compression of adjacent structures.
D) Aneurysms involve a defect in the tunica media of veins.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q89

The most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins is:

Multiple Choice
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A) trauma.
B) congenital valve defect in the abdominal veins.
C) infection.
D) increased venous pressure.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q90

In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from:

Multiple Choice
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A) onset of circulatory shock.
B) the inflammatory response.
C) release of enzymes from necrotic tissue.
D) heart failure.
Answer:

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Q91

Septic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that it is frequently manifested by:

Multiple Choice
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A) fever and flushed face.
B) elevated blood pressure.
C) increased urinary output.
D) slow bounding pulse.
Answer:

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Q92

Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the AV node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called:

Multiple Choice
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A) first-degree block.
B) second-degree block.
C) bundle-branch block.
D) total heart block.
Answer:

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Q93

More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:

Multiple Choice
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A) a hemorrhage.
B) an embolus.
C) a thrombus.
D) an arrhythmia.
Answer:

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Q94

A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:

Multiple Choice
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A) venous return is increased.
B) ventricular fibrillation develops immediately.
C) conduction through the AV node is impaired.
D) ventricular filling is reduced.
Answer:

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Q95

The right side of the heart would fail first in the case of: 1. severe mitral valve stenosis. 2. uncontrolled essential hypertension. 3. large infarction in the right ventricle. 4. advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Multiple Choice
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A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 3, 4
Answer:

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Q96

Which of the following compensations that develop in patients with congestive heart failure eventually increase the workload of the heart?

Multiple Choice
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A) Faster heart rate and cardiomegaly
B) Peripheral vasoconstriction
C) Increased secretion of renin
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q97

Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

Multiple Choice
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A) It indicates decreased CO2 diffusion in the lungs.
B) It indicates swelling in the bronchioles and bronchi.
C) It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position.
D) It results from pleural effusion.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q98

In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they:

Multiple Choice
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A) reduce renin and aldosterone secretion.
B) slow the heart rate.
C) strengthen myocardial contraction.
D) block arrhythmias.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q99

In a child with ventricular septal defect, altered blood flow:

Multiple Choice
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A) leads to increased stroke volume from the left ventricle.
B) results in unoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation.
C) is called a right-to-left shunt.
D) is called a left-to-right shunt.
Answer:

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In a child with acute rheumatic fever, arrhythmias may develop due to the presence of:

Multiple Choice
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A) endocarditis.
B) myocarditis.
C) pericarditis.
D) congestive heart failure.
Answer:

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Prophylactic antibacterial drugs such as amoxicillin are given to patients with certain congenital heart defects or damaged heart valves immediately before invasive procedures to prevent:

Multiple Choice
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A) formation of septic thrombi.
B) infectious endocarditis.
C) abscess formation.
D) myocarditis.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because:

Multiple Choice
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A) leg muscles are painful, restricting movement.
B) edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area.
C) emboli form in damaged veins, leading to local ischemia.
D) valves in veins restrict blood flow.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased cardiac output.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) reduced venous return.
D) friction rub.
Answer:

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Aortic stenosis means the aortic valve:

Multiple Choice
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A) allows blood to leak back into the left ventricle during diastole.
B) cannot fully open during systole.
C) functions to increase stroke volume.
D) does not respond to the cardiac cycle.
Answer:

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Septic shock is frequently caused by infections involving:

Multiple Choice
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A) gram-negative endotoxin-producing bacteria.
B) spore-forming saprophytic fungi.
C) free-swimming, motile parasitic protozoa.
D) parasitic nematodes.
Answer:

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