Quiz 17: Digestive System Disorders

Pathophysiology for the Health Professions

Nursing
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True/False
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Questions

Q1
Free

Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?

Multiple Choice
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A) Parietal cells
B) Chief cells
C) Mucous cells
D) Gastrin cells
Answer:
A) Parietal cells
Q2
Free

Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

Multiple Choice
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A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Ileum
D) Ascending colon
Answer:
C) Ileum
Q3
Free

When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?

Multiple Choice
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A) Gastrin
B) Secretin
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Histamine
Answer:
B) Secretin
Q4

Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?

Multiple Choice
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A) Amylase
B) Peptidase
C) Lactase
D) Trypsin
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Q5

In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?

Multiple Choice
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A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Small intestine
D) Spleen
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Q6

Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?

Multiple Choice
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A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Vagus nerve
C) Increased saliva
D) Absence of food in the system
Answer:

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Q7

Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?

Multiple Choice
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A) Bicarbonate ion
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Activated digestive enzymes
D) Insulin
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Q8

The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity but inhibits gastric activity through the:

Multiple Choice
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A) defecation reflex.
B) enterogastric reflex.
C) vomiting reflex.
D) autodigestive reflex.
Answer:

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Q9

Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?

Multiple Choice
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A) Lipolysis
B) Ketogenesis
C) Gluconeogenesis
D) Glycogenesis
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Q10

What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?

Multiple Choice
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A) Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose
B) Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage
C) Formation of glucose from protein and fat
D) Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
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Q11

Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) peptide hormones.
B) clotting factors and antibodies.
C) cellular energy.
D) hemoglobin.
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Q12

Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?

Multiple Choice
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A) They give feces the characteristic brown color.
B) They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids.
C) They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.
D) They are excreted in the feces.
Answer:

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Q13

The visceral peritoneum:

Multiple Choice
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A) lines the abdominal wall.
B) hangs from the stomach over the loops of small intestine.
C) contains many pain receptors.
D) forms the outer covering of the stomach.
Answer:

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Q14

The early stage of vomiting causes:

Multiple Choice
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A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) increased respirations.
D) increased excretion of hydrogen ions.
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Q15

Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of:

Multiple Choice
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A) bile.
B) blood.
C) protein.
D) bacteria.
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Q16

Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:

Multiple Choice
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A) melena.
B) occult blood.
C) frank blood.
D) hematemesis.
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Q17

Severe vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis because of increased:

Multiple Choice
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A) ketones produced.
B) CO2 retained in the lungs and kidneys.
C) hypovolemia and lactic acid production.
D) metabolic rate.
Answer:

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Q18

Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?

Multiple Choice
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A) It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII.
B) It is entirely voluntary.
C) It is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus.
D) It does not affect respiration.
Answer:

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Q19

What does the defecation reflex require?

Multiple Choice
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A) Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system
B) Contraction of the internal anal sphincter
C) Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
D) Voluntary relaxation of pelvic muscles
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Q20

What is the definition of dysphagia?

Multiple Choice
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A) A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle
B) Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus
C) Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach
D) Difficulty in swallowing
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Q21

What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?

Multiple Choice
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A) Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea
B) Repeated reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus
C) No fluid or food entering the stomach
D) Gastric distention and cramps
Answer:

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Q22

Which of the following applies to cleft palate?

Multiple Choice
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A) The mandibular processes do not fuse.
B) The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C) Exposure to environmental factors in the last trimester causes the defect.
D) Speech and eating are not affected.
Answer:

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Q23

Oral candidiasis is considered to:

Multiple Choice
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A) be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children.
B) cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue.
C) cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off.
D) be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth.
Answer:

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Q24

Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?

Multiple Choice
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A) Active infection is usually asymptomatic.
B) The virus builds up a resistance.
C) The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.
D) The virus mutates; therefore, no effective immunity develops.
Answer:

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Q25

What does the term periodontitis refer to?

Multiple Choice
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A) Erosion of the enamel tooth surface
B) Bacterial damage to the teeth and surrounding alveolar bone
C) Inflammation and infection of the gingivae
D) Formation of calcified plaque on the tooth
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Q26

What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?

Multiple Choice
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A) Floor of the mouth or tongue borders
B) Mucosa lining the cheeks
C) Hard and soft palate
D) Gingivae near the teeth
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Q27

What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?

Multiple Choice
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A) An abnormally long esophagus
B) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
C) Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm
D) A small fundus in the stomach
Answer:

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Q28

What is a common sign of acute gastritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Colicky right upper quadrant pain
B) Vomiting and anorexia
C) Projectile vomiting after eating
D) Diarrhea with abdominal distention
Answer:

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Q29

What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?

Multiple Choice
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A) Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
B) Hyperchlorhydria and chronic peptic ulcers
C) Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D) Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the mucosa
Answer:

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Q30

What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?

Multiple Choice
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A) Unrefrigerated custards or salad dressings
B) Poorly canned foods
C) Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
D) Contaminated water
Answer:

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Q31

Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?

Multiple Choice
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A) A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker
B) Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis
C) A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa
D) An individual with an allergy to shellfish
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Q32

What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?

Multiple Choice
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A) Absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach
B) Failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and duodenum
C) Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus
D) Thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation
Answer:

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Q33

A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:

Multiple Choice
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A) have an increase in appetite.
B) have chronic diarrhea.
C) develop severe colicky pains.
D) vomit undigested food from previous meals.
Answer:

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Q34

Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:

Multiple Choice
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A) of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands.
B) of reduced bicarbonate content in bile and pancreatic secretions.
C) stress increases the number of acid- and pepsinogen-secreting cells.
D) increased epinephrine increases motility.
Answer:

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Q35

The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:

Multiple Choice
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A) decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier.
B) increased stimulation of pepsin and acid secretions.
C) infection by H. pylori.
D) increased stimulation of mucus-producing glands.
Answer:

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Q36

Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?

Multiple Choice
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A) Severe anemia
B) Chemical peritonitis
C) Severe gastric hemorrhage
D) Pyloric obstruction
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Q37

What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?

Multiple Choice
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A) Abdominal discomfort between meals and at night
B) Nausea and diarrhea
C) Hematemesis
D) Sharp colicky pain with food intake
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Q38

What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) Occult blood in the stool and anemia
B) Hematemesis and shock
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Red blood on the surface of the stool
Answer:

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Q39

Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:

Multiple Choice
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A) a large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing distention.
B) severe hypoglycemia has developed.
C) the pylorus is restricting the flow of chyme.
D) bile and pancreatic secretions are irritating the small intestine.
Answer:

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Q40

Bilirubin is a product of:

Multiple Choice
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A) hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of hemoglobin.
B) production of excess chyme and bile.
C) mixing of undigested food and gastric secretions.
D) accumulation of white blood cells (WBCs) due to infection.
Answer:

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Q41

Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?

Multiple Choice
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A) Blood incompatibility between mother and child
B) Damage to many erythrocytes during the birth process
C) Poor circulation and albumin transport for bilirubin
D) Immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough
Answer:

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Q42

Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:

Multiple Choice
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A) bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile.
B) water content in the bile.
C) bile salts in the bile.
D) bicarbonate ions in the bile.
Answer:

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Q43

What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?

Multiple Choice
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A) Intrahepatic jaundice
B) Acute pancreatitis
C) Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
D) Inflammation and infection in the gallbladder
Answer:

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Q44

Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:

Multiple Choice
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A) cholelithiasis.
B) cholecystitis.
C) cholangitis.
D) choledocholithiasis.
Answer:

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Q45

Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?

Multiple Choice
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A) It is also called serum hepatitis.
B) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
C) It contains a double strand of DNA.
D) It frequently leads to chronic hepatitis.
Answer:

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Q46

What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?

Multiple Choice
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A) Acute infection is present.
B) Chronic infection has developed.
C) Liver failure is in progress.
D) The usual prolonged recovery from any viral infection is occurring.
Answer:

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Q47

What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?

Multiple Choice
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A) HAV
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HEV
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Q48

During the course of a hepatitis B infection, the onset of jaundice occurs in the:

Multiple Choice
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A) incubation period.
B) preicteric stage.
C) icteric stage.
D) posticteric stage.
Answer:

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Q49

What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?

Multiple Choice
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A) Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material has been removed
B) Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
C) Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
D) Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
Answer:

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Q50

What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Below normal blood levels of AST and ALT
B) Upper left quadrant tenderness and dull pain
C) A small, firm, nodular liver and portal hypertension
D) Decreased production of blood clotting factors
Answer:

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Q51

A factor that may precipitate encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:

Multiple Choice
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A) serum urea.
B) conjugated bilirubin.
C) serum ammonia.
D) serum pH.
Answer:

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Q52

In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:

Multiple Choice
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A) ingesting excessive lipids.
B) bleeding occurs in the digestive tract.
C) an increase in unconjugated bilirubin occurs in the serum.
D) less bile is produced.
Answer:

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Q53

What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins
B) Alcohol irritating the mucosa
C) Failure to inactivate estrogen
D) Poor nutritional status
Answer:

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Q54

What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Anemia and leucopenia
B) Jaundice and pruritus
C) Recurrent infections
D) Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin
Answer:

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Q55

Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
B) Severe anemia and increased serum bilirubin
C) Hypokalemia and increased serum ammonia
D) Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension
Answer:

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Q56

Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?

Multiple Choice
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A) Metastatic tumors
B) Acute hepatitis
C) Long-term exposure to certain chemicals
D) Chronic cholelithiasis
Answer:

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Q57

What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia
B) Infection by intestinal microbes
C) Immune complex reaction
D) Autodigestion of tissue by pancreatic enzymes
Answer:

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Q58

How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.
B) Erosion in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria.
C) Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop.
D) Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic.
Answer:

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Q59

Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:

Multiple Choice
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A) damage to the intestinal villi.
B) obstruction in the pancreatic ducts.
C) acidosis, preventing activation of digestive enzymes.
D) insufficient bile for absorption.
Answer:

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Q60

Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?

Multiple Choice
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A) A light gray-colored stool
B) A tarry black stool
C) Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools
D) Watery stools with mucus and blood
Answer:

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Q61

What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) Low sodium, high fat
B) High carbohydrate, low protein
C) High calorie with vitamin supplements
D) Gluten-free
Answer:

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Q62

What are the typical changes occurring with Crohns disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
B) Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
C) A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
D) Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
Answer:

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Q63

Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus and frank blood are typical of:

Multiple Choice
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A) diverticulitis.
B) ulcerative colitis.
C) Crohns disease.
D) celiac disease.
Answer:

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Q64

How may a fistula form with Crohns disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) Lack of peristalsis, leading to dilated areas of intestine
B) Fibrosis and thickening of the wall, causing obstruction
C) Erosion of the mucosa, causing bleeding
D) Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal loops
Answer:

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Q65

How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
B) Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
C) Chronic blood loss in stools
D) Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption
Answer:

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Q66

What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) Physical and emotional stress
B) An autoimmune reaction
C) A combination of recessive genes
D) Idiopathic
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Q67

What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Lower left quadrant
B) Lower right quadrant
C) Sharp, colicky, periumbilical
D) Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin
Answer:

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Q68

What usually initiates acute appendicitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Infection in the appendix
B) An episode of severe diarrhea
C) Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
D) Eating a low-fiber diet
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Q69

With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:

Multiple Choice
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A) increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon.
B) inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall.
C) increased gas and fluid inside the appendix.
D) local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum.
Answer:

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Q70

How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?

Multiple Choice
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A) The omentum walls off the inflamed area.
B) Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall.
C) The obstructing object inside the appendix causes edema.
D) Bacteria escape into the circulating blood.
Answer:

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Q71

What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

Multiple Choice
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A) Change in shape of the stool
B) Incomplete emptying
C) Mild but persistent pain in the lower left quadrant
D) Occult blood in the stool
Answer:

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Q72

To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

Multiple Choice
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A) Lungs
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Spleen
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Q73

How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?

Multiple Choice
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A) Hypotension and shock cause ischemia.
B) The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.
C) A section of intestine herniates between the muscles of the abdominal wall.
D) The distention of the intestinal wall causes increased permeability of the tissue.
Answer:

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Q74

Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?

Multiple Choice
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A) Excessive audible bowel sounds
B) Intermittent colicky pain
C) Severe steady abdominal pain
D) Visible peristalsis
Answer:

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Q75

A congenital condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the colon, impairing motility is referred to as:

Multiple Choice
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A) diverticulitis.
B) Crohns disease.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) Hirschsprungs disease.
Answer:

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Q76

What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?

Multiple Choice
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A) Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
B) Hemorrhage into the intestine
C) Rupture of the intestinal wall
D) Repeated bouts of severe diarrhea
Answer:

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Q77

What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased fluid and gas, causing abdominal distention
B) Inflammation of the peritoneum and organs, causing a firm mass in the abdomen
C) Inflamed peritoneum, resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
D) Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles as a protective mechanism
Answer:

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Q78

What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gallbladder?

Multiple Choice
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A) Leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity
B) Massive hemorrhage and shock
C) Breakdown of the gallstones
D) Increasing peristalsis with intermittent painful spasms
Answer:

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Q79

How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Chemical irritation by excessive ovarian and uterine secretions causes inflammation.
B) Ulceration and perforation of the uterus allow the bacteria to spread.
C) Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.
D) Gangrene in the uterine wall spreads through into the pelvic cavity.
Answer:

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Q80

Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.4
B) Decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35
C) Increased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35
D) Decreased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.45
Answer:

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Q81

When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?

Multiple Choice
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A) Serum pH would rise above 7.45.
B) Serum bicarbonate levels would increase, and serum pH would remain in normal range.
C) Serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, and serum pH would drop below 7.35.
D) Serum PCO2 would rise, and serum pH would be around 7.4.
Answer:

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Q82

Bile pigment gallstones are more common in individuals dealing with:

Multiple Choice
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A) obesity.
B) high cholesterol levels.
C) alcoholic cirrhosis.
D) use of oral contraceptives.
Answer:

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Q83

Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting and diarrhea because:

Multiple Choice
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A) hypovolemia limits renal function.
B) increased respirations cannot remove more H+.
C) increased ADH blocks secretion of H+.
D) more sodium and potassium ions are retained.
Answer:

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Q84

Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?

Multiple Choice
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A) Lower esophagus
B) Antrum of the stomach
C) Proximal duodenum
D) Distal duodenum
Answer:

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Q85

In peptic ulcer disease, which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?

Multiple Choice
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A) Prolonged vasoconstriction
B) Excessive glucocorticoid intake
C) Proteases and cytotoxins from H. pylori
D) Decreased vagal stimulation
Answer:

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Q86

An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?

Multiple Choice
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A) Perforation
B) Obstruction
C) Erosion of a large blood vessel
D) Development of malignancy
Answer:

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Q87

What does the term melena mean?

Multiple Choice
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A) Blood in a dark-colored stool
B) Occult blood in the stool
C) Blood in the sputum
D) Blood in vomitus
Answer:

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Q88

Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) Ingestion of smoked foods
B) Genetic factors
C) Ingestion of foods preserved with nitrates
D) Anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
Answer:

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Q89

Which of the following frequently occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals in post-gastrectomy patients?

Multiple Choice
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A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypovolemia
C) Abdominal cramps and distention
D) Increased peristalsis and diarrhea
Answer:

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Q90

Which term refers to an inflammation usually related to infection of the bile ducts?

Multiple Choice
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A) Cholelithiasis
B) Cholecystitis
C) Cholangitis
D) Choledocholithiasis
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q91

Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Hepatomegaly
B) Elevated serum liver enzymes
C) Esophageal varices
D) Lighter-colored stools
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q92

Which of the following statement(s) about jaundice is/are true? 1. It is often the first manifestation of hepatitis. 2. Jaundice indicates permanent liver damage. 3. Individuals with hepatitis are always jaundiced. 4. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.

Multiple Choice
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A) 1 only
B) 4 only
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 4
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q93

Which type(s) of hepatitis increase(s) the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?

Multiple Choice
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A) HBV
B) HCV
C) HBV and HCV
D) Neither HBV nor HCV
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q94

Which of the following is/are related to post-hepatic jaundice?

Multiple Choice
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A) Pruritic skin and light-colored stools
B) Dark-colored stools and urine
C) Increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin
D) Loss of all metabolic functions
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q95

Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?

Multiple Choice
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A) The liver is inflamed and enlarged.
B) Blood clotting delays are apparent at onset.
C) Hepatocytes cannot regenerate when the virus is present.
D) Infection is self-limiting.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q96

Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.

Multiple Choice
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A) A vaccine is not available.
B) The incubation period is too short to track contacts.
C) Infection is often asymptomatic.
D) Antibodies are not produced.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q97

What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?

Multiple Choice
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A) Formation of nodules with shrinkage of the liver
B) Inflammation with necrosis
C) Development of fibrous bands of tissue
D) Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q98

How does serum bilirubin change with cirrhosis?

Multiple Choice
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A) Increased unconjugated bilirubin
B) Increased conjugated bilirubin
C) Increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
D) Decreased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Q99

Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?

Multiple Choice
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A) HAV
B) HCV
C) HDV
D) HEV
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

At what stage of alcoholic liver disease can the damage be reversed?

Multiple Choice
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A) It can never be reversed
B) Initial stage
C) Alcoholic hepatitis stage
D) End-stage cirrhosis
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:

Multiple Choice
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A) obesity and smoking.
B) high-fat diet and hypertension.
C) congenital defects and drug abuse.
D) gallstones and alcohol abuse.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Which factor(s) appear(s) to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?

Multiple Choice
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A) Dietary factors
B) Environmental toxins
C) Genetic and immunological factors
D) Chronic alcoholism
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:

Multiple Choice
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A) periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus.
B) constant flow of intestinal and gastric contents into the esophagus.
C) spasmodic and violent vomiting of gastric contents.
D) violent spasming of the esophagus, causing choking.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:

Multiple Choice
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A) dysphagia.
B) rolling hernia.
C) sliding hernia.
D) pyloric stenosis.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?

Multiple Choice
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A) It usually appears as polyp or protruding mass.
B) Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
C) Genetics or geographical area does not affect the incidence.
D) It is usually diagnosed in an early stage because of pyloric obstruction.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the tumor is located:

Multiple Choice
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A) at the head of the pancreas.
B) in the body of the pancreas.
C) in the tail of the pancreas.
D) in the endocrine glands of the pancreas.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

A gluten-free diet as required for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:

Multiple Choice
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A) products containing lactose.
B) any trans-fat.
C) certain grains.
D) proteins containing certain amino acids.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:

Multiple Choice
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A) volvulus.
B) hernia.
C) adhesion.
D) intussusceptions.
Answer:

A) You need to subscribe to get the answer.

A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:

Multiple Choice
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A) tonsillitis.
B) mumps.
C) chickenpox.
D) scarlet fever.
Answer:

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