Drug Actions and Body Responses

Understanding Pharmacology Essentials for Medication Safety

Nursing
28
Questions
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True/False
25
Choices
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Questions

Q1
Free

How are intrinsic drugs different from extrinsic drugs?

Multiple Choice
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A) Intrinsic drugs are made by the body, whereas extrinsic drugs are made outside the body.
B) Intrinsic drugs are administered by the parenteral route, whereas extrinsic drugs are administered by the oral route.
C) Extrinsic drugs can only be applied to the skin or mucous membranes, whereas intrinsic drugs are taken internally.
D) Extrinsic drugs require a prescription for administration, whereas intrinsic drugs are available over the counter.
Answer:
A) Intrinsic drugs are made by the body, whereas extrinsic drugs are made outside the body.

Explanation:
Intrinsic drugs are the hormones, enzymes, and other chemicals made by the body that change cell activity. Extrinsic drugs are manufactured from chemical, animal, or plant sources and must have a means of entering the body in order to change cell activity.
Q2
Free

How are the terms drug and medication different in the health care environment?

Multiple Choice
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A) Medications must be prescribed, whereas drugs are available over the counter.
B) Medications are used to treat health problems, whereas drugs can be abused.
C) Drugs are always illegal, whereas medications are legal.
D) There is no difference between these two terms.
Answer:
D) There is no difference between these two terms.

Explanation:
Although the lay public may think there is a distinction between these two terms, in health care they mean the same thing. Both are used to treat health problems and both can be abused.
Q3
Free

Which patient response indicates a drugs therapeutic response?

Multiple Choice
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A) Ankle swelling
B) Bone strengthening
C) Constipation
D) Dizziness
Answer:
B) Bone strengthening

Explanation:
A therapeutic response is a drugs intended action to help a health problem. Effects that are caused by a drug but are not the intended action are known as side effects. No one prescribes a drug with the intention to cause ankle swelling, constipation, or dizziness.
Q4

Which type of drug name is used mainly by drug developers and manufacturers, and not by prescribers?

Multiple Choice
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A) Generic name
B) Brand or trade name
C) Chemical name
D) Proprietary name
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Q5

What major consideration allows a drug to be available over the counter rather than by prescription?

Multiple Choice
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A) Side effects are not induced by the drug.
B) Over-the-counter drugs must cost less than prescription drugs.
C) The drug is so mild that no federal regulations are needed.
D) The drug is safe when the directions for dosage and scheduling are followed.
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Q6

Why must the nurse always ask a patient about his or her use of any herbal supplements or botanicals?

Multiple Choice
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A) Many states do not have regulations about herbal supplements or botanicals.
B) These substances are illegal and the nurse must report patients use of them.
C) Patients who use botanicals seldom take their prescribed drugs.
D) These substances can interact with a prescribed drug.
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Q7

In the United States, which group is responsible for enforcing established standards for drug manufacturing?

Multiple Choice
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A) United States Pharmacopeia
B) National Institutes of Health
C) Food and Drug Administration
D) Association of Pharmaceutical Manufacturers
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Q8

How are the effects of naturally occurring testosterone changed when a patient is taking a drug that is a testosterone agonist?

Multiple Choice
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A) Effects are increased
B) Effects are decreased
C) Effects are eliminated
D) Effects are unchanged
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Q9

Which statement about agonist and antagonist drugs is true?

Multiple Choice
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A) The target tissues for these types of drugs are invading bacteria and viruses.
B) Both agonist and antagonist drugs must interact with receptors to produce their intended responses.
C) Antagonist drugs produce only intended responses and agonist drugs produce both intended responses and side effects.
D) These types of drugs are less likely to cause allergic responses than drugs that are neither agonists nor antagonists.
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Q10

Which statement about drug side effects is true?

Multiple Choice
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A) All drugs have side effects.
B) Severe side effects are all considered allergic responses.
C) All patients taking a specific drug experience the same side effects.
D) Any patient experiencing a drug side effect must stop taking the drug immediately.
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Q11

The nurse is teaching a patient about adverse drug reactions (ADRs). Which precaution is most important for the nurse to include?

Multiple Choice
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A) Take your medications right before you go to bed so that you can sleep through an ADR.
B) Keep a written record of the date and time an ADR occurs.
C) Stop taking the drug and flush it down the toilet.
D) Immediately seek medical help.
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Q12

What would be a patients response to a drug dose that is below the minimum effective concentration (MEC)?

Multiple Choice
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A) Drug entry exceeds drug elimination.
B) The intended response fails to occur.
C) The risk for toxic side effects is increased.
D) The drugs duration of action is longer than expected.
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Q13

Morphine and hydromorphone (Dilaudid) are two types of opioid receptor agonists used for pain management. Hydromorphone is a more potent drug than morphine, and lower doses are needed to control pain. How do actions at receptor sites explain this difference?

Multiple Choice
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A) Morphine remains bound to opioid receptors longer than hydromorphone does.
B) Hydromorphone remains bound to opioid receptors longer than morphine does.
C) Morphine is metabolized and eliminated at a faster rate than hydromorphone.
D) Hydromorphone is metabolized and eliminated at a faster rate than morphine.
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Q14

Which drug administration route is most likely to result in reduced drug bioavailability?

Multiple Choice
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A) Enteral
B) Intravenous
C) Transdermal
D) Subcutaneous
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Q15

Which drug administration route is the most dangerous?

Multiple Choice
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A) Enteral
B) Intravenous
C) Transdermal
D) Subcutaneous
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Q16

Which factor is a major disadvantage of the transdermal drug delivery route?

Multiple Choice
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A) Only a prescriber can administer drugs by the transdermal route.
B) Transdermal drugs must be sterile rather than clean.
C) First pass drug loss by this route is the most extensive.
D) Drug absorption is dependent on adequate circulation.
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Q17

The likelihood that a drug will sequester (be trapped) in fat cells and remain in the body longer is increased by which drug characteristic?

Multiple Choice
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A) Physical small size
B) Physical large size
C) Dissolves easily in water
D) Dissolves easily in lipids
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Q18

A patient has a deficiency of an enzyme that prepares a specific drug for elimination. When planning care for this patient, the nurse remains alert for which response or issue?

Multiple Choice
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A) Toxic blood levels of the drug are more likely to occur.
B) Higher drug dosages will be needed for the intended action to occur.
C) The drug will be eliminated more rapidly in the feces rather than in the urine.
D) Delivery of this drug by the parenteral route is more effective than by the enteral route.
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Q19

A patient has all of the following health problems. Which problem causes the nurse to be alert for an increased risk for drug side effects?

Multiple Choice
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A) Asthma
B) Kidney disease
C) GI ulcers
D) Chronic high blood pressure
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Q20

The nurse administers orally 400 mg of a drug with a half-life of 2 hours at noon. At which time will the patients blood drug level first be less than 40 mg?

Multiple Choice
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A) 2:00 PM
B) 6:00 PM
C) 8:00 PM
D) Midnight
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Q21

A patient is prescribed a drug that has an extremely short half-life for chest pain (angina). Which modification in drug dosage or scheduling does the nurse expect?

Multiple Choice
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A) Once-daily dosing
B) More frequent dosing
C) Larger first dose and smaller repeat doses
D) Parenteral doses greater than enteral doses
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Q22

Why are antibiotics from the tetracycline drug group seldom prescribed during pregnancy?

Multiple Choice
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A) Although the mother may have an infection, the fetus does not; giving these drugs to the mother would expose the fetus to unnecessary drugs.
B) The pregnant woman does not metabolize tetracycline to its active form and excessively high doses are needed for an intended action.
C) These drugs reduce the thickness of the enamel in developing teeth, so the infant would have darkly stained teeth.
D) The fetal liver is too immature to inactivate these drugs and eliminate them; they increase the risk for severe birth defects.
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Q23

A patient with severe heart failure asks why the prescriber has lowered the dosages of most of the patients daily medications. What is the nurses best response?

Multiple Choice
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A) With a weaker heart, the drugs stay in your system longer, so you dont need as high a dosage.
B) Your heart drugs enhance the action of your other drugs, reducing the need for higher dosages.
C) Your heart is not strong enough to tolerate these drugs, making the risk for a heart attack higher.
D) The drugs are very expensive, and with these heart problems your health is not expected to improve.
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Q24

A 25-year-old patient is prescribed a pregnancy category D drug for acne for 6 months. Which precaution is most important for the nurse to teach?

Multiple Choice
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A) Drugs in this category reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives and you will need to switch to another form of birth control to prevent pregnancy.
B) One side effect of drugs in this category is nausea, which will make morning sickness more severe if you become pregnant while taking this drug.
C) Use two reliable forms of birth control during the next 6 months because drugs in this category cause severe birth defects.
D) Your risk for sexually transmitted diseases is increased while taking this drug and for 3 months after therapy is completed.
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Q25

Which precaution is most important for the nurse to teach parents about giving an over-the-counter (OTC) drug to a child?

Multiple Choice
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A) OTC drugs are only for adults, not children.
B) Be sure to crush the tablets or capsules to prevent choking.
C) Check with your pediatrician or pharmacist for the proper dosage.
D) Only use the liquid form of the drug to make it easier to swallow.
Answer:

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Q26

[Multiple Response] Which body tissues or fluids are routes of drug elimination? (Select all that apply.)
a. Bone marrow
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Lungs
e. Ovary
f. Saliva g. Tears

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Q27

[Multiple Response] Which body tissues or fluids are routes of drug elimination? (Select all that apply.)
a. Bone marrow
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Lungs
e. Ovary
f. Saliva g. Tears

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Q28

An adult patient weighing 180 lb is prescribed a drug dose of 2 mg/kg. What dose does the nurse prepare for this patient? _____ mg

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